On Mon, 09 Feb 2004 08:36:32 -0500, Paige Miller <paige.miller@kodak.com> wrote:

>conjecture wrote: >> I've two groups of people, I try to compare the occupation between two >> groups. >> >> eg >> Police Cook Accountant >> A 1000 200 500 >> B 1500 150 600 >> >> The distribution is >> Police Cook Accountant >> A 59% 12% 29% >> B 67% 7% 27% >> >> I try to compare the percentage, say Police, 59% vs 67% using normal >> test. > >I would not use a normal test on this data. The data are not >normally distributed. > >Perhaps you meant that you are using a normal approximation to a >binomial test. If that is what you are doing, that is probably fine >in this case. > Yes, I mean using a normal approximation to a binomial test

>> Should I conclude the two group are different when we find the test is >> significant? I don't want to use chi square test because it is not as >> detailed as the normal test to test all the occupation. Agree?? > >I don't understand your objection to chi-squared. Chi-squared would >be my first choice as a test to compare groups A and B across the >three occupations. Chi-squared test is best to compare two groups but I want to test where the differences coming from. So I choose normal approx. to test the percentage by occupation. Is it reasonable and usual to use the above method to do this analysis?? Pls advise !!

Thanks Note: Please correct me if you find any mistakes in my sentences.