Date: Fri, 14 Jul 2006 23:42:15 -0300
Reply-To: Hector Maletta <firstname.lastname@example.org>
Sender: "SPSSX(r) Discussion" <SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU>
From: Hector Maletta <email@example.com>
Subject: Re: regression -- predicted values
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Agree with Stephen. Moreover, even the adjusted predicted values are
practically the same as the unadjusted, except in the case of outliers with
a disproportionate influence on the estimated coefficients. In many datasets
there are no cases with enough influence as to cause the correlation to be
less than (nearly) perfect.
De: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU] En nombre de
Enviado el: Friday, July 14, 2006 11:12 PM
Asunto: Re: regression -- predicted values
The Unstandardized Predicted Value and the Standardized Predicted Value have
a perfect correlation because they are simple linear transformations of one
another. Illustrattively, the standardized predicted value involves the
subtraction of a constant (the mean predicted value) from each predicted
value, and division by a constant (the standard deviation of the predicted
The adjusted predicted value is somewhat more complicated. This is the
predicted value for a case when it is excluded from the computation of the
For personalized and professional consultation in statistics and research
From: SPSSX(r) Discussion [mailto:SPSSX-L@LISTSERV.UGA.EDU]On Behalf Of
Sent: Friday, July 14, 2006 3:52 PM
Subject: regression -- predicted values
I hope this email finds you all well on this late Friday afternoon.
I ran a simple regression and saved Unstandardized Predicted Value;
Adjusted Predicted Value; and Standardized Predicted Value
What is the difference between Unstandardized Predicted Value and
Adjusted Predicted Value?
I get almost identical values on these variables, correlation = 1.00
almost however they are not necessarily 100% equal.