|Date: ||Wed, 10 Sep 1997 10:14:34 -0400|
|Reply-To: ||Abdalla Abdel Ghafour Al Smadi <aa118585@OAK.CATS.OHIOU.EDU>|
|Sender: ||"SPSSX(r) Discussion" <SPSSX-L@UGA.CC.UGA.EDU>|
|From: ||Abdalla Abdel Ghafour Al Smadi <aa118585@OAK.CATS.OHIOU.EDU>|
|Subject: ||equating question|
|Content-Type: ||TEXT/PLAIN; charset=US-ASCII|
I am doing a differential item functioning(DIF) study. I know that if
two forms of a test gevin to two samples of people we need to equate
scores of one form to be on the same scale as the other form.
What if we have the same group of items gevin to two groups of people, do
we still need to equate before analizing for DIF ???