```Date: Fri, 31 Oct 1997 11:18:09 -0600 Reply-To: "Nichols, David" Sender: "SPSSX(r) Discussion" From: "Nichols, David" Comments: To: Robert Corwyn The standard test would be testing the three way interaction in a loglinear model, or the two way between ethnicity and poor/non-poor in a logit model (which is the same thing). David Nichols Senior Support Statistician SPSS Inc. nichols@spss.com >---------- >From: Robert Corwyn[SMTP:rbflynn@UALR.EDU] >Sent: Friday, October 31, 1997 10:54 AM >To: SPSSX-L@UGA.CC.UGA.EDU > >I apologize for posting this question a second time. I suspect the columns >were off last time and it wasn't readable. I would greatly appreciate advise >on the following... > >The following are odds obtained from a logit analysis with HOME items as the >dependent variables. For each group, I ran a separate logit analysis with >groups defined as, for example, white/non-poor=1 versus all others=0. Thus, >Non-poor Whites were 2.02 times as likely to get credit for positive feelings >as all other persons in the dataset. > >White Odds of receiving credit on a HOME item >Non-Poor 2.02 >Poor .72 > >Black >Non-Poor 1.34 >Poor .48 > >Hispanic >Non-Poor 1.60 >Poor .55 > > >My question is this... While looking at the table, I noticed that the effect >of poverty status appeared to be proportional across ethnic groups. For >example, > >2.02 divided by .72= 2.806 >1.34 divided by .48= 2.792 >1.60 divided by .55= 2.909 > >I have over 100 HOME items, and the proportional effect of poverty across >ethnic groups is very consistent. > >Could someone suggest a statistical test to verify that the effects >of poverty on my dependent variables is proportional across ethnic groups? >I ran loglinear analyses testing for interactions between poverty status and >ethnicity, and found no interaction effects (with Bonferonni adjustments). > >Thanks in advance >Robert Flynn Corwyn > ```

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