Date:         Fri, 21 May 1999 11:02:54 -0700
Reply-To:     Seumas Rogan <seumasr@HRP.ARIZONA.EDU>
Sender:       "SPSSX(r) Discussion" <SPSSX-L@UGA.CC.UGA.EDU>
From:         Seumas Rogan <seumasr@HRP.ARIZONA.EDU>
Subject:      Re: spearman correlation output
Comments: To: John Hinchy <hinchy@deakin.edu.au>
In-Reply-To:  <NCBBKBLKCJOIIHMDIMEAMEKPCCAA.hinchy@deakin.edu.au>
Content-Type: TEXT/PLAIN; charset=US-ASCII

Hi John and SPSS listers,
 
Thanks for taking the time to repsond to my question. I genuinely
appreciate it. My original question still remains unanswered, however.
Perhaps I am missing something in your response.
 
Why does spss report a significance of .000 (2 tail) for a correlation
coefficient in the correlation matrix, and then report significance at
.01 (2 tail) for the same coefficient in a footnote at the end of the
table?
 
 
Thanks in advance,
 
seumasr@hrp.arizona.edu